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Model Question Paper

Class 12th Biology NCERT Exemplar Solution
Multiple Choice Questions
  1. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in:
  2. Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?
  3. Which of the following statements is correct?
  4. The synthesis of DNA is discontinuous on one strand of the replication fork because:…
  5. To analyse the genotype of an organism, it is made to:
  6. The conditions of the earth atmosphere conducive for the origin of life were:…
  7. Virus-free plants can be raised in vitro from
  8. If a radiolabel is used to tag a DNA molecule, the technique used to localise would be…
  9. An inverted Pyramid of biomass is represented by:
  10. Some of the problems that have come in the wake of green revolution are:…
Very Short Answer Type
  1. Right two important conditions of MTP to avoid its misuse.
  2. Which of the following are homologous or analogous (Indicate H for homologous and A for…
  3. How does incomplete dominance differ from co-dominance?
  4. The yellowish fluid colostrum is secreted by mother during initial days of lactation,…
  5. With the help of a suitable example mention the role of microbes in:a. Single cell…
  6. Differentiate betweena. Benign and malignant tumoursb. Viral oncogenes and protooncogenes…
  7. Name the microbe used for production of Swiss cheese.
  8. How does human insulin formed using rDNA technique?
  9. What are selectable markers? Give two example.
  10. Differentiate betweena. Grazing food chain and Detritus food chainb. Gross primary…
  11. Arrange the following steps of decomposition in a sequential order: Catabolism, Leaching,…
  12. Write the appropriate method for disposals of e-waste.
Short Answer Type
  1. The number of taxa exhibiting asexual reproduction is drastically reduced in higher plants…
  2. Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. However, if fertilisation does not take place,…
  3. Why is the frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in males than in…
  4. DNA is more suitable genetic material over RNA. Why?
  5. A sportsperson was tested positive for cannabinoid what are these? From where are these…
  6. What is Bt toxin? Name an organism that produces it? How has man exploited it?…
  7. Discuss in detail how RNA can be used to silence specific genes.
Long Answer Type
  1. Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a mature angiosperm, embryo sac.Mention the role of…
  2. a. In humans, males are heterogametic and females are homogametic. Explain. Are there any…
  3. Observe the diagram given below and answer the following.a. Which biome shows maximum…

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.

During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in:
A. Endothecium

B. Microspore mother cells

C. Microspore tetrads

D. Pollen grains.


Answer:

• Microsporogenesis is the process of formation of microspores in anther.



Question 2.

Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland?
A. Seminal vesicle

B. Ampulla

C. Prostate

D. Bulbourethral gland


Answer:

• Ampulla is a part of female reproductive accessory duct. (Fallopian tube)


• It is the site for the fertilisation.


Question 3.

Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Surgical methods of contraception does not prevent gamete formation

B. In E. T techniques, embryos are always transferred into the uterus

C. Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women

D. All STDs are completely curable


Answer:

• Surgical method involves cutting and tying up the ducts i.e. fallopian tube in females and vas deference in males.


• This only blocks the transportation of gametes.


Question 4.

The synthesis of DNA is discontinuous on one strand of the replication fork because:
A. DNA molecule being synthesised is very long

B. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyse polymerisation only in one direction (5' → 3')

C. It is more efficient process

D. It help to use DNA ligase


Answer:

• This occurs due to the addition of the deoxyribonucleotides to the free 3’ end of the template strand.


• Thus the replication on 5' → 3' is discontinuous.


• However the discontinuous strands synthesised are joined using DNA ligase enzyme.


Question 5.

To analyse the genotype of an organism, it is made to:
A. Self cross

B. Cross with recessive parent

C. Cross with dominant parent

D. Cross with another species


Answer:

• The method used for the determination of the genotype of an organism is called test cross.


• In this type of cross, organism with unknown genotype is crossed with the recessive trait parents.


• If the all the progenies obtained are of same type then it is said that the organism with unknown genotype is homozygous.


• It is concluded that the genotype of unknown organism is heterozygous, if 50-50% result is obtained.


Question 6.

The conditions of the earth atmosphere conducive for the origin of life were:
A. Presence of high temperature, CH4, NH3, and O3

B. High temperature, CH4, NH3, volcanic eruption

C. High temperature, volcanic eruption, O2, NH3

D. Volcanic eruption, CH3, NH3and O2


Answer:

It was suggested by Heldane and Oparin, and experimentally proved by Urey and Miller that in the very starting atmosphere was reducing in nature.


It consisted of NH3, H2, CH4 ,the temperature was very high.


Question 7.

Virus-free plants can be raised in vitro from
A. Any plant part

B. Meristems of infected plants

C. Stem of infected plants

D. Leaves of infected plants


Answer:

Due to absence of vascular supply, meristems remain free from pathogens.


Question 8.

If a radiolabel is used to tag a DNA molecule, the technique used to localise would be
A. X-ray crystallography

B. Autoradiography

C. Fluorescence microscopy

D. Electron microscopy


Answer:

• When a DNA or RNA is tagged with radio labelled tag, and then allowed to hybridise with complementary DNA strand.


• These tagged probes are then seen by technique of autoradiography.


Question 9.

An inverted Pyramid of biomass is represented by:
A. Aquatic ecosystem

B. Ecosystem of a big tree

C. Grassland ecosystem

D. Tropical fresh ecosystem


Answer:

In aquatic system, biomass of primary producers i.e. phytoplankton is less than that of zooplanktons; biomass of fishes is much more than zooplankton. Hence, pyramid of biomass appears inverted.



Question 10.

Some of the problems that have come in the wake of green revolution are:
A. Water logging and permafrost

B. Soil erosion and desertification

C. Water logging and soil salinity

D. Snow blindness and water logging


Answer:

• Green evolution is related with the use of hybrid plants which were more efficient in uptaking nutrients and water, even from great depth sites.


• This lead to nutrients depletion, and led to barren soils.


• Moreover use of fertilizers and pesticides also contributed in soil infertility. And led to soil erosion and desertification.



Very Short Answer Type
Question 1.

Right two important conditions of MTP to avoid its misuse.


Answer:

Two important conditions under which MTP can be performed are:


• If the pregnancy could prove to be fatal either for mother or the child in future.


• In case of unwanted pregnancy.



Question 2.

Which of the following are homologous or analogous (Indicate H for homologous and A for Analogous)

a. Wing of bat and butterfly _________

b. Wing of bat and flipper of whale ______

c. Wing of butterfly and flipper of whale __________

d. Flipper of whale and wing of bird _________


Answer:

a. Wing of bat and butterfly __A_______

b. Wing of bat and flipper of whale __H______


c. Wing of butterfly and flipper of whale ____H______


d. Flipper of whale and wing of bird _____H ______



Question 3.

How does incomplete dominance differ from co-dominance?


Answer:

Codominance: when both the alleles are dominant, and express equally to produce traits.

Incomplete dominance: in this case two alleles combine to produce a new trait. Example RR (red flower) when crossed with rr( white flowers) gives a new phenotype to form pink flowers of Rr genotype.



Question 4.

The yellowish fluid colostrum is secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, mention the antibody present in it and mention the type of immunity.


Answer:

• Colostrums is rich in antibody IgA.


• It is the example of Passive Immunity.



Question 5.

With the help of a suitable example mention the role of microbes in:

a. Single cell protein

b. Organic farming


Answer:

A. Single cell protein

The protein produced by culturing single celled organism is called Single cell protein.


Yeast , Spirulina and a bacterium Methylophilus methylotropus are used for the culturing to obtain SCP.


b. Orgamic farming


• Involves use of natural ways for the farming.


• Instead of using fertilizers, microbes are used to enrich soil with nutrients e.g. cyanobacteria like Nostoc and Anabena are known to fix nitrogen. Hence used to supplement soil with N element.


• Use of biocontrol agents: instead of using inorganic insecticides or fungicides naturally occurring organisms are used.


E.g. strain of Bacillus thuringensis is known to encode for insecticidal proteins. And protects the cotton farm from insects.



Question 6.

Differentiate between

a. Benign and malignant tumours

b. Viral oncogenes and protooncogenes


Answer:

a.



b. Proto-oncogenes. These are normal genes that on activation due to mutation may change into oncogenes.


Viral-oncogenes, these are the cancer causing genes present inside the virus.



Question 7.

Name the microbe used for production of Swiss cheese.


Answer:

Propionibacterium shermanii is used to produce Swiss cheese.



Question 8.

How does human insulin formed using rDNA technique?


Answer:

Steps involved in insulin production using rDNA technology:

a. The gene which are known to synthesise A and B poly peptide chains are isolated.


b. It is inserted in the plasmid of the E. Coli bacteria, at a site where gene for beta- glactosidase synthesis is present, using a DNA ligase enzyme.


c. Now as the plasmid synthesise beta galactosidase, it produces A & B polypeptide chains.


d. These A&B polypeptide chains are isolated and combined by disulphide bonds.



Question 9.

What are selectable markers? Give two example.


Answer:

Selectable markers are the sites present in the vectors plasmid, used to distinguish between tranformant and non transformant cell. E.g.

• Antibiotic resistance gene like BaH MI-provides tetracycline resistance.


• Chromogenic genes.



Question 10.

Differentiate between

a. Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain

b. Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity


Answer:

a.



b.



GPP – Respiratory losses = NPP



Question 11.

Arrange the following steps of decomposition in a sequential order: Catabolism, Leaching, Mineralisation, Humification and Fragmentation.


Answer:

Following is the correct sequence:

• Fragmentation


• Leaching


• Catabolism


• Humification


• Mineralisation



Question 12.

Write the appropriate method for disposals of e-waste.


Answer:

Recycling of e-waste under friendly biological condition is the best way for its disposal.




Short Answer Type
Question 1.

The number of taxa exhibiting asexual reproduction is drastically reduced in higher plants (angiosperms) and higher animals (vertebrates) as compared with lower groups of plants and animals. Analyse the possible


Answer:

• In Angiosperms and Vertebrates, sexual mode of reproduction is pronounced.


• Sexual mode of reproduction allows gradual changes in genetic pool, due to recombination.


• It allows the variation and helps the organism to adapt well according to the changing environment.


• In asexual reproduction, no variations are allowed exact copies of parents are produced. It leads to poor adaptability. Hence the organisms with such increased complexity, chose to reproduce sexually.



Question 2.

Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. However, if fertilisation does not take place, it remains active only for 10-12 days. Explain. Reasons for this situation.


Answer:

• Ruptured Grafian follicles form the Corpus luteum.


• Corpus luteum produces progesterone and helps to maintain the endometrium lining, required for the implantation of embryo.


• However if fertilisation doesn’t happen then there is no need of endometrium lining.


• As in absence of fertilisation, endometerium is not required and the corpus luteum degenerates in 10-12 days.



Question 3.

Why is the frequency of red-green colour blindness is many times higher in males than in the females?


Answer:

• Colour blindness is a sex linked(X-linked) recessive disorder.


• X linked disorder expresses themselves in males more frequently, because they have only one copy of X chromosome.


• Whereas, females have two copies of X chromosomes. They will get affected by this disorder only when they have both the copies of affected alleles.



Question 4.

DNA is more suitable genetic material over RNA. Why?


Answer:

Due to following reasons DNA is considered to be more stable as a genetic material then RNA:

• DNA is chemically more stable than RNA.


 In DNA instead of Uracil, Thymine is present.


 2’-OH group is present in RNA, which makes it more reactive and less stable.


• DNA being double stranded is more stable structurally than single stranded RNA.



Question 5.

A sportsperson was tested positive for cannabinoid what are these? From where are these extracted? What are its effects on human body?


Answer:

• Cannabinoids are drugs, which binds with the brain and suppresses feeling of pain.


• These are obtained from a plant Cannabis sativa.


• Effects:


A. It increases heart beats thereby increasing blood pressure.


B. Reduces inflammation


C. Reduces muscle spasm and relieves pain and anxiety.



Question 6.

What is Bt toxin? Name an organism that produces it? How has man exploited it?


Answer:

• Bt toxins are the protein crystals produced by Bacillus thruingensis.


• These toxins are insecticidal in nature.


• When an insect ingest bt toxin, the protoxin converts into active form due to the alkaline nature of gut, the Bt toxin binds with the lining of gut, creates pore, causing death of insect.


• This insecticidal property is used by mankind by taking out the cry gene which is known to encode for Bt toxin.


• And this Cry gene is introduced into the plants. So that whenever an insect ingest, the cotton plants would die.



Question 7.

Discuss in detail how RNA can be used to silence specific genes.


Answer:

• A nematode called the Meliodygyne incognitia is known to cause root knots in tobacco plant.


• Scientists developed a method called RNAi to kill this nematode.


• A host specific double stranded DNA was introduced, such that it produced both sense and antisense sequences.


• Both these sense ad antisense sequences undergo transcription and form two complementary RNA strands.


• Both the strands combine to form double helix.


• Which is chopped off, hence the gene expression of nematode inactivates.




Long Answer Type
Question 1.

Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a mature angiosperm, embryo sac.Mention the role of synergids.

OR

Enumerate and describe any five reasons for introducing sex education to school-going children.


Answer:

Role of synergid:

Synergids consist of filliform apparatus which directs the growth of pollen tube into the embryo sac by secreting some chemical substances.


As the pollen tube enters the synergid, it starts to degenerate.



OR


a) Children need to be prepared mentally for the upcoming body changes due to arrival of adolescence.


b) Sex related issues like STDs, unwanted pregnancies, MTP must be taught.


c) Students are needed to be given classes on sex education, in order to break the taboo related with reproductive health.


d) School students need to be counselled about different aspects of adolescences i.e. related problems and its solutions.


e) Children are needed to be made aware of the importance of habit of cleanliness and hygiene.



Question 2.

a. In humans, males are heterogametic and females are homogametic. Explain. Are there any examples where males are homogametic and females heterogametic?

b. Who determines the sex of an unborn child? Mention whether temperature has a role in sex determination.

OR

Give an account of post transcriptional modifications of a eukaryotic mRNA with diagramatic representation


Answer:

(a) • Birds are the best examples of female heterogamety.


• Females decide the sex of the off springs.


Female bird – ZW, Male bird- ZZ


(b) • Organisms with male heterogametes like humans, males are the deciding factor in the sex determination of the off spring.


• Whereas in birds, where female are heterogametic, sex is determined by the mother.


• In some of the organisms like crocodiles sex determination depends on temperature.


• In crocodiles it is observed above 320C males are formed and below it the females are produced.


OR



1. Splicing- primary transcripts contain exons and inrons.


Introns are the sequences which don’t code for any protein. Hence, they need to be removed. The intron sequences form loops and then are cleaved.


2. Capping and tailing: as in eukaryotes RNA is transported from nucleus to the cytoplasm, it needs some protection in order to avoid degradation of DNA.


Hence, at the 3’ end poly adenylate chain, and at the 5’ end methyl gaunosine triphosphate residues are added.



Question 3.

Observe the diagram given below and answer the following.



a. Which biome shows maximum range of annual precipitation?

b. Which biome shows maximum range of annual temperature?

c. Give range of mean annual temperature by corniferous forest

d. Give range of mean annual precipitation by temperate forest

e. Which biome has lowest mean annual temperature?

OR

Every year in winter Siberian cranes migrate from Russia to India forbreeding. In the year 2006, a survey was done which has the values in the given equation

N(t+1) = Nt+ {(B+I)–(D+E)} as follows

N(t+1) = 1200 + {(600+700)–(200+800)}

On the basis of above answer the followings

a. Natality rate

b. Mortality rate

c. Number of cranes immigrated

d. Number of cranes emigrated

e. Population of cranes in India in year 2006.


Answer:

a. Tropical Rain forest


b. Grasslands


c. 00-100C


d. 50-200cm


e. Arctic and Alpine Tundra


OR


a. Natality rate= [600/1200]*100


=50%


b.Mortality rate= [200/1200]*100


=16.7%


c. No. Of cranes immigrated= 700


d. No. Crane emigrated=800


e. Population of crane=1500